A 24-year-old G1P0 woman at 42 weeks’ gestation presents to her obstetrics clinic for evaluation with no specific complaints. The patient had good prenatal care including a first-trimester (10th week) ultrasound to estimate the baby’s due date, and no
18
votes
A. Perform an elective cesarean section
11%
/ 2
votes
B. Intravaginal treatment with prostaglandin E2
6%
/ 1
vote
C. Induce labor with oxytocin
28%
/ 5
votes
D. Monitor for labor with an intrauterine pressure catheter
11%
/ 2
votes
E. Induce labor with artificial rupture of the membranes