You are asked to review a Chris Cringle a 65 year old gentleman who reports a several month history of numbness and tingling sensations in his lower legs. On examination he has a bilateral distal sensory loss to fine touch and pin prick sensation but a normal motor examination. Which of these is least likely to be a cause of his presentation?

14 votes
Diabetes mellitus
 
7% / 1 vote
Alcohol
 
0% / 0 votes
Chemotherapy
 
7% / 1 vote
B12 deficiency
 
7% / 1 vote
Guillain-Barre syndrome
 
79% / 11 votes


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